Name: 
 

Ch. 13-16 Review


Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

1. 
If a mixture of viruses labeled with radioactive sulfur and phosphorus is placed in a bacterial culture,
a.
the bacteria will absorb radioactive sulfur.
b.
the bacteria will absorb radioactive phosphorus.
c.
the bacteria will absorb both radioactive sulfur and phosphorus.
d.
the bacteria will not absorb either sulfur or phosphorus.
e.
the viruses will not attach to the bacteria.
 

2. 
The building blocks of nucleic acids are
a.
amino acids.
b.
nucleotides.
c.
pentose sugars.
d.
phosphate groups.
e.
nitrogenous bases.
 

3. 
Rosalind Franklin used which technique to determine many of the physical characteristics of DNA?
a.
transformation
b.
transmission electron microscopy
c.
density-gradient centrifugation
d.
x-ray diffraction
e.
all of these
 

4. 
The DNA molecule could be compared to a
a.
hair pin.
b.
ladder.
c.
key.
d.
globular mass.
e.
flat plate.
 

5. 
Which of the following statements is true?
a.
The hydrogen bonding of cytosine to guanine is an example of complementary base pairing.
b.
Adenine always pairs up with guanine in DNA, and cytosine always teams up with thymine.
c.
Each of the four nucleotides in a DNA molecule has the same nitrogen-containing base.
d.
When adenine base pairs with thymine, they are linked by three hydrogen bonds.
e.
In the DNA of all species, the amount of purines never equals the amount of pyrimidines.
 

6. 
Each DNA strand has a backbone that consists of alternating
a.
purines and pyrimidines.
b.
nitrogen-containing bases.
c.
hydrogen bonds.
d.
sugar and phosphate molecules.
e.
amines and purines.
 

7. 
The appropriate adjective to describe DNA replication is
a.
nondisruptive.
b.
semiconservative.
c.
progressive.
d.
natural.
e.
lytic.
 

8. 
Replication of DNA
a.
produces RNA molecules.
b.
produces only new DNA.
c.
produces two molecules, each of which is half-new and half-old DNA joined lengthwise to each other.
d.
generates excessive DNA, which eventually causes the nucleus to divide.
e.
is too complex to characterize.
 

9. 
DNA from bacteria differs from DNA in humans in which of the following ways?
a.
base composition
b.
sugar-phosphate linkage
c.
nucleotide sequence
d.
bonding of the helix
e.
all of these
 

10. 
A linear stretch of DNA that specifies the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide is called a(n)
a.
codon.
b.
intron.
c.
messenger.
d.
gene.
e.
enzyme.
 

11. 
The DNA molecule usually is made up of how many strands?
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
6
e.
12
 

12. 
The "central dogma" of molecular biology
a.
explains the structural complexity of genes.
b.
describes the flow of information.
c.
is based upon the role of proteins in controlling life.
d.
does not explain how genes function.
e.
explains evolution in terms of molecular biology.
 

13. 
Electrophoresis is a technique that has been used to study
a.
nutritional disorders in Neurospora.
b.
the difference between the ways that mutant and normal forms of proteins behave in electric fields.
c.
how nitrogen bases are inserted into mRNA molecules.
d.
how mitochondrial DNA differs from nuclear DNA.
e.
all of these
 

14. 
Movement of molecules in an electrophoretic experiment is based on
a.
the amount of carbon.
b.
the size and charge of the molecules.
c.
the number of organic rings.
d.
their ease in going into solution.
e.
the pH of the test material.
 

15. 
Research on nutrient requirements in bread mold led to the idea that one gene specifies the makeup of one
a.
amino acid.
b.
enzyme.
c.
polypeptide.
d.
enzyme or polypeptide.
e.
amino acid, or enzyme, or polypeptide.
 

16. 
The nitrogenous base found in DNA but not in RNA is
a.
adenine.
b.
cytosine.
c.
guanine.
d.
uracil.
e.
thymine.
 

17. 
In transcription,
a.
several RNA molecules are made from the same DNA molecule.
b.
promoters are needed so that RNA can bind to DNA.
c.
DNA produces messenger RNA.
d.
a specific enzyme called RNA polymerase is required.
e.
all of these
 

18. 
The portion of the DNA molecule that is translated is composed of
a.
introns.
b.
anticodons.
c.
exons.
d.
transcriptons.
e.
exons and transcriptons.
 

19. 
Which of the following could NOT be an RNA transcript?
a.
AUGCGU
b.
ATGCGT
c.
UACGCA
d.
UAGCGU
e.
GCGUUU
 

20. 
The concept that a set of three nucleotides specifies a particular amino acid provides the basis for
a.
the one gene, one enzyme hypothesis.
b.
the one gene, one polypeptide hypothesis.
c.
the genetic code.
d.
biochemical reactions among nucleic acids.
e.
all of these
 

21. 
Each "word" in the mRNA language consists of how many letters?
a.
3
b.
4
c.
5
d.
more than 5
e.
none of these
 

22. 
Transfer RNA differs from other types of RNA because it
a.
transfers genetic instructions from cell nucleus to cytoplasm.
b.
specifies the amino acid sequence of a particular protein.
c.
carries an amino acid at one end.
d.
contains codons.
e.
none of these
 

23. 
Repressor proteins
a.
prevent binding of RNA polymerase to DNA.
b.
can be inactivated by an inducer such as lactose.
c.
provide negative control.
d.
prevent binding of RNA polymerase to DNA and can be inactivated by an inducer such as lactose.
e.
prevent binding of RNA polymerase to DNA, can be inactivated by an inducer such as lactose, and provide negative control
 

24. 
The lactose operon
a.
requires the presence of milk in the environment of the bacteria.
b.
is turned on before a baby is born.
c.
is a control mechanism that enables vertebrates to digest milk.
d.
causes the production of gas in the digestive tract of milk-drinking animals.
e.
is an excellent model for explaining control mechanisms for eukaryotic forms.
 

25. 
Which of the following is NOT actually a part of an operon?
a.
promoter
b.
gene for permease
c.
operator
d.
gene for acetylase
e.
regulator genes
 

26. 
Which of the following statements is false?
a.
The patterns of gene expression vary from one cell to another in complex multicellular organisms.
b.
Less is known about gene controls in unicellular prokaryotes than in multicellular eukaryotes.
c.
Eukaryotes rely on conversion between active phosphorylated regulators and inactive forms more than prokaryotes do.
d.
The timing of the induction (turning on) of genes varies throughout the life span of an organism depending upon the gene in question.
e.
Hormones are one of the chief signaling molecules that allow for variable gene expression. Control in Eukaryotic cells
 

27. 
Chromosome puffs
a.
indicate that a gene is transcribing.
b.
are sites of chromosome inversions.
c.
occur when two chromosomes stick together.
d.
occur during metaphase.
e.
none of these
 

28. 
Recombinant DNA
a.
has occurred in sexually reproducing forms.
b.
can be produced with new biological techniques.
c.
occurs with viral infections of various forms of life.
d.
has produced changes that resulted in evolution.
e.
all of these
 

29. 
Through natural mechanisms, crossing over occurs between
a.
members of the same species.
b.
members of different species.
c.
homologous chromosomes.
d.
base pairs on any adjacent chromosomes.
e.
all of these
 

30. 
Recombinant DNA technology
a.
uses bacteria to make copies of the desired product.
b.
splices DNAs together.
c.
is possible only between closely related species.
d.
uses bacteria to make copies of the desired product and splices DNAs together.
e.
uses bacteria to make copies of the desired product, splices DNAs together, and is possible only between closely related species.
 

31. 
Enzymes used to cut genes in recombinant DNA research are
a.
ligases.
b.
restriction enzymes.
c.
transcriptases.
d.
DNA polymerases.
e.
replicases.
 

32. 
Which of the following is false?
a.
Gene transfer and recombination is a common occurrence in nature.
b.
The transfer of genetic material from one organism to another is dependent upon enzymes that cut and tie genes.
c.
Rather than causing lysis of bacteria, some bacteriophages may be incorporated into the bacterial genome.
d.
The insertion of gene fragments can be accomplished only in the laboratory under artificial conditions.
e.
Once a gene has been incorporated into a bacterium, it may undergo amplification.
 

33. 
Which of the following enzymes joins the paired sticky ends of DNA fragments?
a.
reverse transcriptase
b.
restriction enzymes
c.
DNA ligase
d.
DNA polymerase
e.
transferase
 

34. 
RNA can manufacture DNA via the action of
a.
DNA polymerase.
b.
RNA polymerase.
c.
reverse transcriptase.
d.
ligase.
e.
restriction endonuclease.
 

35. 
Because it has no introns, researchers prefer to use __________ when working with human genes.
a.
cDNA
b.
cloned DNA
c.
hybridized DNA
d.
RFLPs
e.
viral DNA
 

36. 
The method used to produce single strands of DNA
a.
is known as amplification.
b.
is heating a solution of DNA.
c.
uses restriction enzymes.
d.
isolates DNA molecules from the nucleus.
 

37. 
Which of the following statements about restriction fragment length polymorphism is false?
a.
RFLPs can be used as a genetic fingerprint.
b.
RFLPs are based upon variations in alleles at the same locus.
c.
RFLPs reflect the fact that molecular differences in alleles alter the site where restriction enzymes function.
d.
RFLPs can be used to distinguish between identical twins.
e.
RFLPs have greatly increased the number of sites involved in mapping the human genome.
 

38. 
A collection of DNA fragments produced by restriction enzymes and incorporated into plasmids is called
a.
copied DNA.
b.
transcribed DNA.
c.
DNA amplification.
d.
a DNA library.
e.
plasmid DNA.
 

39. 
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a.
Plant geneticists are searching for wild ancestors of modern corp plants.
b.
Botanists have grown whole plants from cultured cells.
c.
Modern crop strains are more resistant than ancient ones.
d.
Researchers have introduced DNA fragments directly into cells using bullets.
e.
Plants can be engineered to produce human proteins.
 

40. 
What would be the value of inserting human genes suspected of causing Alzheimer disease into mice?
a.
to make mice feel more human
b.
to make antibodies which can be injected into suffering patients
c.
to develop mice that can serve as models for study of this condition
d.
to use the mice for production of a vaccine
 



 
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